Q1. In which situations should a pilot use blind transmissions?
A. When no radio communication can be established with the appropriate aeronautical station, but when evidence exists that transmissions are received at that ground unit
B. When a pilot has flown into cloud or fog unintentionally and therefore would like to request navigational assistance from a ground unit
C. When a transmission containing important navigational or technical information is to be sent to several stations at the same time
D. When the traffic situation at an airport allows the transmission of information which does not need to be acknowledged by the ground station
Q2. Leaving a control frequency (except when reaching the final parking position)...
A. is not mandatory to be reported
B. must be approved twice
C. must be approved
D. must be reported
Q3. Which abbreviation is used for the term "abeam"?
A. ABM
B. ABB
C. ABA
D. ABE
Q4. Which abbreviation is used for the term "visual flight rules"?
A. VFS
B. VFR
C. VRU
D. VMC
Q5. Which abbreviation is used for the term "obstacle"?
A. OBTC
B. OBST
C. OST
D. OBS
Q6. What does the abbreviation "FIS" stand for?
A. Flashing information service
B. Flight information system
C. Flashing information system
D. Flight information service
Q7. What does the abbreviaton "FIR" stand for?
A. Flight integrity receiver
B. Flow information radar
C. Flight information region
D. Flow integrity required
Q8. What does the abbreviation "H24" stand for?
A. Sunrise to sunset
B. 24 h service
C. No specific opening times
D. Sunset to sunrise
Q9. What does the abbreviation "HX" stand for?
A. No specific opening hours
B. Sunrise to sunset
C. Sunset to sunrise
D. 24 h service
Q10. The altimeter has to be set to what value in order to show zero on ground?
A. QNH
B. QNE
C. QTE
D. QFE
Q11. Which altitude is displayed on the altimeter when set to a specific QNH?
A. Altitude in relation to the 1013.25 hPa datum
B. Altitude in relation to mean sea level
C. Altitude in relation to the air pressure at the reference airfield
D. Altitude in relation to the highest elevation within 10 km
Q12. Which altitude is displayed on the altimeter when set to a specific QFE?
A. Altitude in relation to the 1013.25 hPa datum
B. Altitude in relation to the air pressure at the reference airfield
C. Altitude in relation to the highest elevation within 10 km
D. Altitude in relation to mean sea level
Q13. What does the abbreviation "QDR" stand for?
A. True bearing from the station
B. Magnetic bearing from the station
C. Magnetic bearing to the station
D. True bearing to the station
Q14. What does the abbreviation "QUJ" stand for?
A. True bearing from the station
B. True bearing to the station
C. Magnetic bearing to the station
D. Magnetic bearing from the station
Q15. What does the abbreviation "QTE" stand for?
A. Magnetic bearing to the station
B. Magnetic bearing from the station
C. True bearing from the station
D. True bearing to the station
Q16. Which Q-code is used for the magnetic bearing from the station?
A. QUJ
B. QTE
C. QDM
D. QDR
Q17. Which Q-code is used for the true bearing from the station?
A. QDR
B. QUJ
C. QDM
D. QTE
Q18. Which Q-code is used for the true bearing to the station?
A. QDR
B. QDM
C. QTE
D. QUJ
Q19. Which of the listed radiotelephony messages has a higher priority than a flight safety message?
A. Communication related to direction finding
B. Flight regularity message
C. Meteorological message
D. Aircraft position report message
Q20. What is the correct term for a message used for air traffic control?
A. Flight regularity message
B. Meteorological message
C. Message related to direction finding
D. Flight safety message
Q21. Distress messages are messages...
A. concerning the safety of an aircraft, a watercraft or some other vehicle or person in sight
B. sent by a pilot or an aircraft operating agency which have an imminent meaning for aircraft in flight
C. concerning aircraft and their passengers which face a grave and imminent threat and require immediate assistance
D. concerning the operation or maintenance of facilities which are important for the safety and regularity of flight operations
Q22. Urgency messages are messages...
A. concerning aircraft and their passengers which face a grave and imminent threat and require immediate assistance
B. concerning the safety of an aircraft, a watercraft or some other vehicle or person in sight
C. concerning the operation or maintenance of facilities essential for the safety or regularity of aircraft operation
D. sent by a pilot or an aircraft operating agency which have an imminent meaning for aircraft in flight
Q23. Regularity messages are messages...
A. concerning the safety of an aircraft, a watercraft or some other vehicle or person in sight
B. concerning aircraft and their passengers which face a grave and imminent threat and require immediate assistance
C. sent by an aircraft operating agency or an aircraft of immediate concern to an aircraft in flight
D. concerning the operation or maintenance of facilities essential for the safety or regularity of aircraft operation
Q24. Which of the following messages has the highest priority?
A. Turn left
B. Request QDM
C. QNH 1013
D. Wind 300 degrees, 5 knots
Q25. What is the correct way to transmit the call sign HB-YKM?
A. Home Bravo Yuliett Kilo Mike
B. Hotel Bravo Yankee Kilo Mike
C. Hotel Bravo Yuliett Kilo Mikro
D. Home Bravo Yankee Kilo Mikro
Q26. What is the correct way to transmit the call sign OE-JVK?
A. Omega Echo Jankee Victor Kilo
B. Oscar Echo Jankee Victor Kilogramm
C. Oscar Echo Juliett Victor Kilo
D. Omega Echo Juliett Victor Kilogramm
Q27. An altitude of 4500 ft is transmitted as...
A. four tousand five hundred
B. four five tousand
C. four tousand five zero zero
D. four five zero zero
Q28. A heading of 285 degrees is correctly transmitted as...
A. two eight five
B. two eight five hundred
C. two hundred eight five
D. two hundred eighty-five
Q29. A frequency of 119.500 MHz is correctly transmitted as...
A. one one niner tousand decimal five zero
B. one one niner decimal five
C. one one niner decimal five zero
D. one one niner decimal five zero zero
Q30. The directional information "12 o'clock" is correctly transmitted as...
A. One two
B. One two o'clock
C. One two hundred
D. Twelve o'clock
Q31. Times are transmitted as...
A. UTC
B. standard time
C. local time
D. time zone time
Q32. If there is any doubt about ambiguity, a time of 1620 is to be transmitted as...
A. sixteen twenty
B. two zero
C. one tousand six hundred two zero
D. one six two zero
Q33. What is the meaning of the phrase "Roger"?
A. Permission for proposed action is granted
B. I understand your message and will comply with it
C. I have received all of your last transmission
D. An error has been made in this transmission. The correct version is
Q34. What is the meaning of the phrase "Correction"?
A. Permission for proposed action is granted
B. An error has been made in this transmission. The correct version is
C. I have received all of your last transmission
D. I understand your message and will comply with it
Q35. What is the meaning of the phrase "Approved"?
A. I have received all of your last transmission
B. I understand your message and will comply with it
C. Permission for proposed action is granted
D. An error has been made in this transmission. The correct version is
Q36. Which phrase does a pilot use when he / she wants to check the readability of his / her transmission?
A. What is the communication like?
B. How do you read?
C. Request readability
D. You read me five
Q37. Which phrase is used by a pilot when he wants to fly through controlled airspace?
A. Apply
B. Want
C. Would like
D. Request
Q38. What phrase is used by a pilot if a transmission is to be answered with "yes"?
A. Roger
B. Yes
C. Affirm
D. Affirmative
Q39. What phrase is used by a pilot if a transmission is to be answered with "no"?
A. Negative
B. Not
C. Finish
D. No
Q40. Which phrase is to be used when a pilot wants the tower to know that he is ready for take-off?
A. Ready for start-up
B. Ready for departure
C. Request take-off
D. Ready
Q41. What phrase is used by a pilot to inform the tower about a go-around?
A. No landing
B. Pulling up
C. Going around
D. Approach canceled
Q42. What is the call sign of the aerodrome control?
A. Tower
B. Airfield
C. Ground
D. Control
Q43. What is the call sign of the surface movement control?
A. Tower
B. Earth
C. Ground
D. Control
Q44. What is the call sign of the flight information service?
A. Info
B. Advice
C. Flight information
D. Information
Q45. What is the correct abbreviation of the call sign D-EAZF?
A. DEA
B. AZF
C. DZF
D. DEF
Q46. In what case is the pilot allowed to abbreviate the call sign of his aircraft?
A. After the ground station has used the abbreviation
B. Within controlled airspace
C. If there is little traffic in the traffic circuit
D. After passing the first reporting point
Q47. What is the correct way of using the aircraft call sign at first contact?
A. Using the first two characters only
B. Using the last two characters only
C. Using the first three characters only
D. Using all characters
Q48. What is the correct way of establishing radio communication between D-EAZF and Dusseldorf Tower?
A. Dusseldorf Tower over
B. DEAZF is calling Dusseldorf Tower
C. Dusseldorf Tower D-EAZF
D. Tower from D-EAZF
Q49. What is the correct way of acknowledging the instruction "Call Hamburg Tower on 121.275"?
A. Call 121.275
B. Call tower
C. 121.275
D. Call tower on 121.275
Q50. What does a readability of 1 indicate?
A. The transmission is perfectly readable
B. The transmission is unreadable
C. The transmission is readable but with difficulty
D. The transmission is readable now and then
Q51. What does a readability of 2 indicate?
A. The transmission is readable now and then
B. The transmission is readable but with difficulty
C. The transmission is perfectly readable
D. The transmission is unreadable
Q52. What does a readability of 3 indicate?
A. The transmission is readable now and then
B. The transmission is perfectly readable
C. The transmission is readable but with difficulty
D. The transmission is unreadable
Q53. What does a readability of 5 indicate?
A. The transmission is readable now and then
B. The transmission is readable but with difficulty
C. The transmission is unreadable
D. The transmission is perfectly readable
Q54. Which information from a ground station does not require readback?
A. Runway in use
B. Wind
C. SSR-Code
D. Altitude
Q55. Which information from a ground station does not require readback?
A. Altimeter setting
B. Traffic information
C. Taxi instructions
D. Heading
Q56. What is the correct way of acknowledging the instruction "DZF after lift-off climb straight ahead until 2500 feet before turning right heading 220 degrees, wind 090 degrees, 5 knots, runway 12, cleared for take-off"?
A. DZF after lift-off climb straight ahead 2500 feet, wilco, heading 220 degrees, 090 degrees, 5 knots, cleared for take-off
B. DZF after lift-off climb straight ahead 2500 feet, then turn right heading 220, runway 12, cleared for take-off
C. DZF after lift-off climb straight ahead 2500 feet, then turn right heading 220, 090 degrees, 5 knots
D. DZF after lift-off climb straight ahead 2500 feet, then turn right heading 220, 090 degrees, 5 knots, cleared for take-off
Q57. What is the correct way of acknowledging the instruction "Next report PAH"?
A. Positive
B. Roger
C. Report PAH
D. Wilco
Q58. What is the correct way of acknowledging the instruction "Squawk 4321, Call Bremen Radar on 131.325"?
A. Roger
B. Squawk 4321, wilco
C. Squawk 4321, 131.325
D. Wilco
Q59. What is the correct way of acknowledging "You are now entering airspace Delta"?
A. Entering
B. Roger
C. Wilco
D. Airspace Delta
Q60. What does a cloud coverage of "FEW" mean in a METAR weather report?
A. 8 eighths
B. 1 to 2 eighths
C. 5 to 7 eighths
D. 3 to 4 eighths
Q61. What does a cloud coverage of "SCT" mean in a METAR weather report?
A. 1 to 2 eighths
B. 8 eighths
C. 3 to 4 eighths
D. 5 to 7 eighths
Q62. What does a cloud coverage of "BKN" mean in a METAR weather report?
A. 3 to 4 eighths
B. 8 eighths
C. 5 to 7 eighths
D. 1 to 2 eighths
Q63. Given a visibility of 12 km, what is the correct way to transmit this visibility?
A. One-two kilometers
B. Twelve kilometers
C. One-zero kilometers or more
D. One-zero kilometers
Q64. In what case is visibility transmitted in meters?
A. Up to 5 km
B. Greater than 10 km
C. Greater than 5 km
D. Up to 10 km
Q65. In what cases is visibility transmitted in kilometers?
A. Up to 10 km
B. Greater than 5 km
C. Up to 5 km
D. Greater than 10 km
Q66. What information is broadcasted on a VOLMET frequency?
A. Navigational information
B. NOTAMS
C. Current information
D. Meteorological information
Q67. Which navigation facility may be used for broadcasting the ATIS?
A. GPS
B. DME
C. NDB
D. VOR
Q68. How can you obtain meteorological information concerning airports during a cross- country flight?
A. VOLMET
B. GAMET
C. METAR
D. AIRMET
Q69. Which transponder code indicates a radio failure?
A. 7700
B. 7600
C. 7500
D. 7000
Q70. What is the correct phrase to begin a blind transmission?
A. Blind
B. Transmitting blind
C. No reception
D. Listen
Q71. On what frequency shall a blind transmission be made?
A. On the appropriate FIS frequency
B. On a radar frequency of the lower airspace
C. On the current frequency
D. On a tower frequency
Q72. How often shall a blind transmission be made?
A. Two times
B. Three times
C. Four times
D. One time
Q73. In what situation is it appropriate to set the transponder code 7600?
A. Hijacking
B. Emergency
C. Flight into clouds
D. Loss of radio
Q74. What is the correct course of action when experiencing a radio failure in class D airspace?
A. The flight has to be continued above 5000 feet complying with VFR flight rules or the airspace has to be left by the shortest route
B. The flight has to be continued according to the last clearance complying with VFR rules or the airspace has to be left by the shortest route
C. The flight has to be continued above 5000 feet complying with VFR flight rules or the airspace has to be left using a standard routing
D. The flight has to be continued according to the last clearance complying with VFR flight rules or the airspace has to be left using a standard routing
Q75. Under what conditions may class D airspace be entered with a radio failure?
A. Approval has been granted before
B. There are other aircraft in the aerodrome circuit
C. It ist the aerodrome of departure
D. It is the destination aerodrome
Q76. Which phrase is to be repeated three times before transmitting an urgency message?
A. Help
B. Urgent
C. Pan Pan
D. Mayday
Q77. Urgency messages are defined as...
A. messages concerning urgent spare parts which are needed for a continuation of flight and which need to be ordered in advance
B. messages concerning the safety of an aircraft, a watercraft or some other vehicle or person in sight
C. information concerning the apron personell and which imply an imminent danger to landing aircraft
D. messages concerning aircraft and their passengers which face a grave and imminent threat and require immediate assistance
Q78. Distress messages contain...
A. information concerning urgent spare parts which are required for a continuation of flight and which have to be ordered in advance
B. information concerning the apron personell and which imply an imminent danger to landing aircraft
C. information concerning the safety of an aircraft, a watercraft or some other vehicle or person in sight
D. information concerning aircraft and their passengers which face a grave and imminent threat and require immediate assistance
Q79. What is the correct frequency for an initial distress message?
A. Emergency frequency
B. Current frequency
C. FIS frequency
D. Radar frequency
Q80. What kind of information should be included in an urgency message?
A. Nature of problem or observation, important information for support, departure aerodrome, information about position, heading and altitude
B. Intended routing, important information for support, intentions of the pilot, information about position, departure aerodrome, heading and altitude
C. Nature of problem or observation, important information for support, intentions of the pilot, information about position, heading and altitude
D. Intended routing, important information for support, intentions of the pilot, departure aerodrome, destination aerodrome, heading and altitude
Q81. The correct transponder code for emergencies is...
A. 7700
B. 7000
C. 7600
D. 7500
Q82. Which of the following frequencies is designated for VHF voice communication?
A. 118.75 kHz
B. 327.25 MHz
C. 327.25 kHz
D. 118.75 MHz
Q83. Which of the following frequencies is designated for VHF voice communication?
A. 120.50 MHz
B. 115.15 MHz
C. 108.80 MHz
D. 117.30 kHz
Q84. What is the correct designation of the frequency band from 118.000 to 136.975 MHz used for voice communication?
Q85. Which of the following factors affects the reception of VHF transmissions?
A. Altitude
B. Shoreline effect
C. Twilight error
D. Height of ionosphere
Q86. What is the approximate speed of electromagnetic wave propagation?
A. 123000 m/s
B. 300000 km/s
C. 123000 km/s
D. 300000 m/s
Q87. An ATIS is valid for...
A. 10 minutes
B. 45 minutes
C. 60 minutes
D. 30 minutes